Can someone please take a look at the figures and methods used on these bench tests and convey their opinion as is to if they feel that its valid or not?
https://www.soundsolutionsaudio.com/forum/topic/30180-uniform-amp-clamp-test/
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This is what I do for FUN!
Assuming sinewave (else true-RMS clamps) and that only one polarity is feed thru the current clamp, it shows the volt/current output for a whatever signal input at whatever gain at whatever dc voltage.
It still amazes me that amps with their SMPS are so dependent on input voltage for max output power!
I would be curious to find out how they "Calculated" the impedance of the speakers. Impedance fluctuates drastically depending on frequency and box tuning. I just went back and looked at the numbers. They only read voltage and used the speakers impedance to get the rest of the numbers. A 4 ohm speaker at resonance will read much higher than 4 ohms. Hence much less current than they came up with.
I am wondering why they calculated the current when they have a clampmeter connected to the wire.
Not that I checked, but I assumed he used V/I - ie, rms impedance.
And maybe I should check it all again - I thought they were MEASURED values to provide 50Hz power & impedance.
(As to why and why not (say) 2 test frequencies & if 50Hz was not resonant etc, and not test distortion, closed/open environment....)
Its the validity of the resulting wattage that concerns me... I'm failing to see the mathematical proof of the values they are stating.
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This is what I do for FUN!