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Crossover and speaker resistance impact


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moeras 
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Joined: March 06, 2006
Location: United States
Posted: March 06, 2006 at 2:14 PM / IP Logged  

Hello everybody,

This is my first post in this forum, and its a question.

I am thinking a custom 3 way component set dor frequencies 100hz and beyond.

I also plan on using only one 2 ch amp for this, and design a custom 3 way passive xovers.

If I were to wire 3 speakers in parallel (asssuming each one is 4ohm) I would get 1.33 total resistance, right?

Well, one friend told me that if there is no overlap in frequency ranges, the impedance will essentially be the same

as the speaker that's operating in any given range of frequencies.

That got me confused... does that mean the resistance wonīt change? Is that right?

Thanks,

-Erasmo

DYohn 
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Location: Arizona, United States
Posted: March 06, 2006 at 2:37 PM / IP Logged  

That's the purpose of a properly designed crossover.  In very gross terms, it essentially only allows one speaker to be connected to the amplifier at a time so the amp is only loaded by the impedance of that one speaker.

In reality it's not quite so simple as that, but that's the general idea.  Your friend was correct.  :)

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moeras 
Member - Posts: 3
Member spacespace
Joined: March 06, 2006
Location: United States
Posted: March 06, 2006 at 5:11 PM / IP Logged  

So if I wire 3 speaker and use a passive crossover so the frequency doesnīt overlap in any of them, what impendance should I expect to see? 1.33 ohm?  In that case there is no real benefit of setting the xover like that...

excuse me if I sound dumb, but this escenario is very confusing to me. I donīt have exoerience setting up configuratios like this.

I had a component set but it came with a xover unit. I remember it was 4ohm, but I dont remember if the speakers were 8ohm each... or 4ohm and the frequencies were not overlaping.

Thanks for your help. I read all the articles about xover in this and another article, but I still donīt get it.

Maybe I will have to setup the system and the meausure the impedance...

Thanks,

-Erasmo

DYohn 
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Location: Arizona, United States
Posted: March 06, 2006 at 5:16 PM / IP Logged  

moeras wrote:
So if I wire 3 speaker and use a passive crossover so the frequency doesnīt overlap in any of them, what impendance should I expect to see?

In a 3-way (or 2-way or 25-way) set of speakers using a properly designed passive crossover, the amplifier "sees" the impedance of only one speaker.  If they are all 4-ohm, the amplifier "sees" 4-ohms.

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Steven Kephart 
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Posted: March 06, 2006 at 10:33 PM / IP Logged  

Here's a link that may help you understand this: http://www.diycable.com/main/pdf/2641.pdf

Look at the impedance curve of this 3-way speaker on page 7.  If you notice it provides the impedance of all the individual speakers (blue, red, and green) and their combined impedance.  As you can see the impedance doesn't act like a series or parallel circuit as you describe.  The only time when they interact is when the frequency response of the two drivers overlap.

moeras 
Member - Posts: 3
Member spacespace
Joined: March 06, 2006
Location: United States
Posted: March 06, 2006 at 11:03 PM / IP Logged  
Thanks a lot for the response.
I guess you had tu put it that way so I would understand it, LOL ĻIn a 3-way (or 2-way or 25-way)Ļ.
Last question,since I have a 2 channel amp available.
If I put components in the front and back (4 sets total), can I use this amp to power the 4 sets, making the amp see 2ohms each channel? I mean wiring together Left Channel (front & rear), and Right channel (front & rear)... would you recomend me to do it this way (I am aware that I will lose fader capabilities using this procedure...) since I alreay have this amp.
Thanks for your knowledge.
-Erasmo
Thanks,
-Erasmo

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