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Why so much bass?


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oonikfraleyoo 
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Posted: March 10, 2005 at 11:31 PM / IP Logged  
alien, man...I have to say it, quit while your ahead, or at least quit while your still on the track. You've gotten confused or lied to at some point. I'm not trying to flame on you, but quite frankly, its sad to see you continue with this argument.
Nik
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Ravendarat 
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Posted: March 10, 2005 at 11:36 PM / IP Logged  
ya dude, your in a battle you cannot win. I appreciate the time you put into your arguments but you seem to have lot of tech data mixed up. Where are you actually sourcing all this from. Were you told this by someone else, did you read it in a book or on the net or what, cause its all messed up.
double-secret reverse-osmosis speaker-cone-induced high-level interference distortion, Its a killer
bullman96 
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Posted: March 11, 2005 at 12:05 AM / IP Logged  
what is the resonant frequency of our ear drums anyways? or what frequency causes the most harm? not to side with the alien of the forum, but that would prove his point even though he couldnt prove it himself
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Mb Quart PCE-216 biamped
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Kenwood KAC-7251 amp for mids
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stevdart 
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Posted: March 11, 2005 at 12:11 AM / IP Logged  
Damn.  This thread started out really good.  Alien, call home.
bullman96 
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Posted: March 11, 2005 at 12:26 AM / IP Logged  
on topic with this post, damn i wish my bass was much louder than my mids/highs considering im still a bit of a basshead. im still in college and i can say that i impress many more college and high school kids with my sq oriented system than i did with my old high school thumper. i can still rattle the windows of the local grocery store, but what the thing that will really attract people to my car when i feel like destroying my ear drums is that my highs can keep up and still sound good. i think it has everything to do with money and how much people are willing to earn and spend for their system. bass is cheap
Pioneer PEH-9660mp
Mb Quart PCE-216 biamped
JL 12W6v2
Sony XM-4026 amp for tweeters
Kenwood KAC-7251 amp for mids
JL-4100 amp for sub
Steven Kephart 
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Posted: March 11, 2005 at 2:46 AM / IP Logged  
Alien509 wrote:

SPL and Freq go hand in hand...

Frequency = force \ time

Force is larger when time is shorter and frequency is in result higher.

(reverse) Higher frequency means time interval is shorter and force is larger

Physical work = Force times the distance the force is applied over

Force is greater with the same distance, more physical work occurs.

Not to mention the higher/midrange frequencies are at extremely high BeatsPerMinute, if they weren't then the complexity of music its self would not exist. Bass on the other hand is usually simplistic, low BPM when compared to what it takes just to say a word in any song. I don't know if anyone has any visual music software but if you visually look at 120hz and compare it to 60hz you can clearly see the higher frequencies cause more change over a shorter period of time. Hit a wall 1 time with a hammer really hard in 5 seconds. The hit the same wall just as hard in a new location 2 times in 5 seconds, which dose more damage? That is why I prefer my bass to cancel some of the peak my mids and highs create. Reguardless of if the people outside can hear it.

This just isn't making any sense.  So let's start at the basis of your theory.  Please define force.  What is it measured in?  As far as I can tell, there is no "force" in the definition of frequency.  Frequency is cycles per second.  So where are you getting this force from?  SPL?  Because that has nothing to do with the definition of frequency.  And that is the only thing I can think of that would associate with your sledge hammer analogy.

Steven Kephart

Adire Audio

Alien509 
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Posted: March 11, 2005 at 6:34 AM / IP Logged  
Steven Kephart wrote:
Alien509 wrote:

SPL and Freq go hand in hand...

Frequency = force \ time

Force is larger when time is shorter and frequency is in result higher.

(reverse) Higher frequency means time interval is shorter and force is larger

Physical work = Force times the distance the force is applied over

Force is greater with the same distance, more physical work occurs.

Not to mention the higher/midrange frequencies are at extremely high BeatsPerMinute, if they weren't then the complexity of music its self would not exist. Bass on the other hand is usually simplistic, low BPM when compared to what it takes just to say a word in any song. I don't know if anyone has any visual music software but if you visually look at 120hz and compare it to 60hz you can clearly see the higher frequencies cause more change over a shorter period of time. Hit a wall 1 time with a hammer really hard in 5 seconds. The hit the same wall just as hard in a new location 2 times in 5 seconds, which dose more damage? That is why I prefer my bass to cancel some of the peak my mids and highs create. Reguardless of if the people outside can hear it.

This just isn't making any sense.  So let's start at the basis of your theory.  Please define force.  What is it measured in?  As far as I can tell, there is no "force" in the definition of frequency.  Frequency is cycles per second.  So where are you getting this force from?  SPL?  Because that has nothing to do with the definition of frequency.  And that is the only thing I can think of that would associate with your sledge hammer analogy.

Steven Kephart

Adire Audio

A cycle is the force you are making per instance of time. If there were no forces acting then time would not matter and therefore freqeuncy wouldn't matter. High freqeuncy tuned sounds therefore have more instances where the amplitude of the sounds are changed. All I am saying is that rapid change in notes of high freq. must contribute to hearing loss more effectively than minor changes in the sound wave, given that the power of each sound produced is the same.The equations I used are wrote this way:

Time PeriodT = 1/f s
Frequencyf = 1/T 1/s or Hz

to mathematically solve for force in the correct way-  The 1 is a bit confusing if you don't understand the concept behind how time and force relate. Force is the ability to change the acceleration of a mass. At 120hz the driver will be accelerated forward and back at a rate of 120 times per second. The changes the ear drum experience must be equivilant. The same force delivered at 50 hz will flux the ear drum back and fourth 50 times per second. If my mids and highs had a force equivilant to my subs to be heard on the outside I do believe I would be doing more damage to my ears over a shorter period of time than just blasting bass.

kfr01 
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Posted: March 11, 2005 at 7:17 AM / IP Logged  
Alien,
Where are you getting your information from?
New Project: 2003 Pathfinder
oonikfraleyoo 
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Posted: March 11, 2005 at 11:19 AM / IP Logged  
"The 1 is a bit confusing if you don't understand the concept behind how time and force relate."
All of this is confusing if your not the one pulling it out of your ass.
Nik
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tcss 
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Posted: March 11, 2005 at 11:39 AM / IP Logged  
What moves more air? Bass or highs?
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